Client-centred counselling hypothesizes that man is - Arrange in order: (i) Rational (ii) Self-centred (iii) Socialized (iv) Constructive (v) Forward moving
Rationale:
Client-centred counselling hypothesizes that man is (i) Rational, (iii) Socialized, (iv) Constructive, and (v) Forward moving. This sequence reflects the theory’s emphasis on individuals as logical beings shaped by social contexts, capable of creating meaning, and continuously progressing towards personal growth and fulfillment, aligning with Carl Rogers' humanistic approach to counseling.
A: (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) Includes "Self-centred," which contradicts the client-centred view emphasizing socialization and growth rather than egocentric traits, misrepresenting the holistic and outwardly focused nature of human development in this theory.
C: (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) Incorporates "Self-centred," conflicting with the humanistic perspective that prioritizes social connectedness and forward movement, thus undermining the comprehensive social and constructive aspects of client-centred counselling.
D: (i), (iii), (v) and (iv) Rearranges the last two traits, "Forward moving" and "Constructive," inaccurately disrupting the logical progression of development posited by client-centred counselling’s ordered conceptual framework.
A 40-year-old man who is scheduled for repair of a tendon laceration of the left hand has complete anesthesia in the median, radial, and ulnar nerve distributions after supraclavicular block. Two hours of tourniquet inflation are required for completion of the procedure. The most appropriate NEXT step is an additional block of which of the following nerves?
Rationale:
The most appropriate next step is an additional block of the intercostobrachial nerve.
The intercostobrachial nerve provides sensation to the medial upper arm and is not anesthetized by the supraclavicular block, which covers the brachial plexus. Since the tourniquet is inflated on the upper arm, blocking this nerve prevents tourniquet pain and ensures complete anesthesia during the procedure.
A: Axillary The axillary nerve is already anesthetized by the supraclavicular block and supplies the deltoid region, not the medial upper arm where tourniquet pain occurs.
C: Musculocutaneous The musculocutaneous nerve is included in the brachial plexus block and innervates the lateral forearm, not the medial upper arm affected by the tourniquet.
D: Medial brachial cutaneous This nerve supplies medial arm sensation but is often anesthetized by the supraclavicular block; it is less implicated in tourniquet pain compared to the intercostobrachial nerve.
A surveyor may cite a facility for
Rationale:
A surveyor may cite a facility for failing to provide a resident with the proper amount of daily calories. This violation directly impacts a resident’s health and well-being, as adequate nutrition is a critical component of care standards. Regulatory bodies monitor dietary provisions closely, and insufficient calorie intake signifies neglect or substandard care, warranting official citations to ensure compliance and resident safety.
A: Providing needed counseling to a resident involves supportive care, which is encouraged and not a regulatory violation, so it would not result in a surveyor citation.
B: Ensuring access to preferred religious services respects resident rights and is a positive practice, not a deficiency that would cause a citation.
D: Addressing social and emotional needs is part of holistic care and standards compliance, so it would not lead to a formal citation by a surveyor.
___________ is the study of all life forms.
Rationale:
Biology is the study of all life forms. Biology encompasses the examination of living organisms, including their structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution. It provides a comprehensive understanding of life in all its diversity, making it the correct term for the scientific study of living beings, unlike more specialized or unrelated disciplines.
A: Anatomy focuses solely on the structure of organisms, specifically their bodily parts, rather than studying all life forms broadly.
B: Physiology examines how organisms’ bodies function, emphasizing processes rather than the overall study of life forms.
D: Geology studies the Earth’s physical structure and substances, unrelated to the biological study of living organisms.
A 42-year-old man is trapped beneath his overturned tractor for hours. He is unconscious and shows no movement in his lower extremities. The most likely cause for this finding is:
Rationale:
Central cord syndrome is the most likely cause of unconsciousness and lack of movement in the lower extremities after prolonged spinal cord compression. This syndrome typically results from hyperextension injuries, causing greater impairment in upper limbs but can affect lower limbs as well. The prolonged entrapment likely caused ischemic injury to the central spinal cord region, leading to these neurological deficits.
A: An epidural hematoma usually causes a lucid interval followed by rapid neurological decline but does not specifically produce isolated lower extremity paralysis after prolonged compression.
B: A pelvic fracture can cause bleeding and shock but does not directly cause spinal cord injury or selective paralysis of lower limbs.
D: Intracerebral hemorrhage involves brain tissue bleeding causing varied neurological signs, typically not isolated lower limb paralysis or unconsciousness from prolonged entrapment.
Your adult patient sustained a right index finger amputation at work. On arrival, first responders have the bleeding controlled with sterile dressings, and the patient is conscious, alert, and oriented. What is the best way to manage the patient's amputated finger during transport to the hospital?
Rationale:
The best way to manage the patient's amputated finger during transport is to wrap the finger in gauze (moistened with normal saline), and seal the finger in a plastic bag before placing it on ice. Moist gauze prevents desiccation while sealing in a plastic bag avoids direct ice contact, minimizing tissue damage and preserving viability for reattachment during transport to the hospital.
A: Do not wrap the finger. Gently place it in a sealed plastic bag, and place it on a towel in ice. Direct ice contact without protective gauze can cause frostbite and cellular injury, reducing the chance of successful reattachment and tissue survival.
C: Rinse the gauze-wrapped finger using water, and place it in a plastic bag with ice. Rinsing with water risks contamination, and placing the finger directly on ice without saline-moistened gauze can lead to freezing injury and tissue necrosis.
D: Wrap it in gauze, and place the finger in close proximity to the patient's core to maintain the appropriate body temperature for re-attachment. Keeping the amputated part warm accelerates tissue degradation and bacterial growth, decreasing the likelihood of successful replantation.
Which of the following is not a feature of personalised care?
Rationale:
Personalised care does not include coordination of care between services. Personalised care emphasizes understanding and respecting the individual’s unique identity, preferences, and needs, focusing on tailoring care to them as a person. Coordination of care, while important, pertains more to system efficiency and integration rather than the individualized, person-centered approach central to personalised care principles.
A: Seeing the person as a person and not only as a patient highlights recognising individuality and humanity, a core tenet of personalised care, ensuring care respects personal identity beyond clinical symptoms.
B: Putting the person's needs and preferences as they define them first prioritizes their subjective experience and autonomy, fundamental to personalised care’s focus on individual choice and self-defined priorities.
C: Tailoring therapeutic plans and services to the person's needs and desires reflects the essence of personalised care, adapting interventions specifically around the person’s unique circumstances and wishes for optimal relevance and effectiveness.
Which of the following is NORMAL in pregnancy?
Rationale:
Widened symphysis pubis is normal in pregnancy.
During pregnancy, hormonal changes, especially increased relaxin, cause the ligaments around the symphysis pubis to loosen and widen to accommodate childbirth. This physiological adaptation facilitates pelvic expansion, making vaginal delivery easier. It is a common and expected musculoskeletal change, reflecting the body’s preparation for labor and delivery without pathological significance.
A: Increased residual lung volume Residual lung volume typically decreases or remains unchanged in pregnancy due to diaphragmatic elevation and increased oxygen demands, not increases.
B: Decreased plasma volume Plasma volume actually increases significantly during pregnancy to support fetal circulation and maternal tissue perfusion, not decrease.
C: Decreased total RBC mass Total red blood cell mass increases during pregnancy to meet oxygen transport needs, despite hemodilution causing relative anemia, not decrease.
What is one important step that the nursing assistant should take when collecting a sputum specimen?
Rationale:
The nursing assistant should have the resident rinse mouth with water before the sputum collection. Rinsing with water helps remove food particles and reduces oral bacteria that could contaminate the specimen. This ensures the sputum sample is as pure as possible, improving the accuracy of lab results and aiding in proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory conditions.
A: Have the resident eat dinner prior to the sputum collection risks contaminating the specimen with food debris, which can interfere with accurate analysis.
B: Ask the resident to rinse with mouthwash before the collection might kill bacteria important for diagnosis, thus compromising the sample’s validity.
D: Collect the specimen at night just before the resident goes to bed is not ideal because sputum samples are typically better collected early in the morning when secretions accumulate.
If a resident's native language is different from the nursing assistant's, the nursing assistant should
Rationale:
Using an interpreter to translate the message ensures clear and accurate communication between the nursing assistant and the resident. This approach respects the resident's native language, prevents misunderstandings, and promotes effective care by allowing the resident to express needs and concerns fully. It fosters trust and upholds the resident’s dignity, essential for quality healthcare interactions.
B: Ignoring the resident unless she speaks the NA's language neglects the resident’s needs and disrespects her communication abilities, leading to isolation and inadequate care. Encouraging learning does not justify neglecting immediate communication.
C: Communicating with coworkers in the NA's native language in front of the resident excludes the resident from the conversation and may cause discomfort or confusion, undermining trust and rapport.
D: Asking only yes/no questions limits the resident’s ability to express detailed thoughts or concerns, restricting communication effectiveness and potentially overlooking important information about their condition or needs.
In which position is a resident if he is on his left side with his lower arm behind his back and his upper knee flexed?
Rationale:
The resident is in the Sims' position. This position involves lying on the left side with the lower arm positioned behind the back and the upper knee flexed, providing comfort and access for medical examinations or procedures. It encourages drainage and is often used for enemas or rectal examinations, distinguishing it from other positions that involve different body alignments or purposes.
B: Prone The prone position requires lying flat on the abdomen with the head turned to one side. It does not involve the specific arm placement behind the back or the flexed upper knee described in the question. This position primarily facilitates back access rather than side positioning.
C: Fowler's Fowler's position involves sitting upright or at a 45-60 degree angle, often used to aid breathing or feeding. It lacks the side-lying component and the specific arm and leg placements noted, making it inconsistent with the scenario described.
D: Supine Supine position is characterized by lying flat on the back with arms and legs extended, not on the side. The described arm behind the back and flexed upper knee contradict the straight, face-up posture typical of supine.
Which of the following will be missed by DPL?
Rationale:
Subcapsular hematoma of the spleen will be missed by DPL.
DPL primarily detects intraperitoneal bleeding or hollow viscus perforation but often fails to identify injuries confined to organ capsules, such as subcapsular hematomas. These hematomas do not release free blood into the peritoneal cavity, making them undetectable by DPL, which relies on sampling intraperitoneal fluid for diagnosis.
B: Liver laceration usually causes free intraperitoneal bleeding, which DPL detects by sampling blood or fluid, making it identifiable through this diagnostic procedure.
C: Bowel injury generally releases blood or intestinal contents into the peritoneal cavity, producing positive DPL findings due to contamination or hemorrhage.
D: Pancreatic injury often leads to intraperitoneal fluid or hemorrhage, which DPL can detect, especially when associated with surrounding tissue damage or ductal disruption.
Which one of the following is recommended method for treating frostbite?
Rationale:
Moist heat is the recommended method for treating frostbite. This approach helps gradually rewarm the affected tissues, restoring circulation and minimizing further damage. Rapid or uneven warming can exacerbate injury, so moist heat provides controlled, consistent temperature to promote healing while avoiding tissue necrosis associated with extreme temperature shifts or inappropriate interventions.
B: Early amputation removes potentially salvageable tissue prematurely, increasing morbidity. Amputation is typically reserved for nonviable tissue after thorough assessment and failed conservative treatments, not as an initial management strategy.
C: Padding and elevation primarily address swelling and pressure but do not actively rewarm frostbitten tissues. They are supportive measures rather than definitive treatments for restoring circulation in frostbite.
D: Vasodilators and heparin may improve blood flow or prevent clots but are not first-line treatments and lack consistent evidence as primary frostbite therapies compared to controlled rewarming methods.
Which of the following statements is true of a living will?
Rationale:
A living will is a document that states the medical care a resident wants or does not want if he becomes unable to make those decisions. This document specifically addresses healthcare preferences during incapacitation, ensuring that a person's treatment choices are respected when they cannot communicate. It does not involve financial or estate matters but focuses solely on medical directives and end-of-life care decisions.
A: A living will does not activate upon death or deal with estate distribution, which pertains to wills and probate processes, not medical instructions.
B: Inheritance concerns relate to legal wills, not living wills, which solely outline healthcare preferences rather than financial or property matters.
D: Managing financial affairs is the role of a power of attorney or financial guardianship, not a living will, which exclusively covers medical care decisions.
If a resident drinks four ounces of water with a meal how many milliliters (mL) has he consumed?
Rationale:
A resident who drinks four ounces of water with a meal has consumed 120 milliliters (mL). Four fluid ounces convert to approximately 120 mL, using the standard conversion factor where 1 ounce equals 30 mL. This measurement is commonly used in healthcare settings for accurate fluid intake recording and ensures proper hydration monitoring for residents during meals.
A: 16 Four ounces far exceed 16 mL, which is closer to half an ounce. This choice significantly underestimates the volume consumed, misrepresenting the actual fluid intake amount.
B: 30 Thirty milliliters represent just one ounce, not four, thus this value underestimates the total fluid consumed by a factor of four, making it an inaccurate conversion.
C: 64 Sixty-four milliliters approximate about two ounces, which is only half the amount consumed, thus this choice underreports the actual volume of water ingested.
The nurse is preparing a patient for a surgical procedure on the right great toe. Which action will be most important to include in this patient's preparation?
Rationale:
The nurse should ascertain that the surgical site has been correctly marked. Correct site marking is crucial to prevent wrong-site surgery, ensuring patient safety and surgical accuracy. This step verifies the exact location of the procedure, confirming communication among the surgical team and reducing the risk of mistakes. It is a fundamental part of surgical preparation protocols.
A: Place the patient in a clean surgical gown. While cleanliness is important, it does not directly prevent surgical errors or confirm the correct surgical site, making it less critical than site verification.
B: Ask the patient to remove all hairpins and cosmetics. Removing accessories aids in hygiene and monitoring but does not ensure the procedure occurs on the correct toe, thus it is less vital.
D: Determine where the family will be located during the procedure. Family location does not affect surgical accuracy or patient safety during the operation, so it is not a priority in surgical site preparation.
A nurse is following a plan of care for passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises. What specifics will be included on the plan?
Rationale:
Passive range-of-motion exercises should be done two times a day, with each exercise performed two to five times. This ensures joints remain flexible and prevents stiffness without causing fatigue or injury. The frequency and repetitions promote circulation and maintain mobility effectively, aligning with standard nursing care practices for patients unable to move independently.
A: Ask the patient to demonstrate ROM at 9 a.m. each day limits therapy to a single time and places responsibility on the patient, which is inappropriate for passive ROM requiring nurse assistance.
C: Request family be available twice a day to perform ROM is impractical and unreliable, as family availability varies and professional supervision ensures proper technique and safety.
D: Move each joint until the patient complains of pain risks injury and discomfort, as passive ROM should be gentle and stop before any pain occurs to avoid harm.
What is the colour coding for a foam fire extinguisher?
Rationale:
Foam fire extinguishers are identified by a cream colour coding. This is a standard safety practice to ensure quick recognition during emergencies. The cream label helps differentiate foam extinguishers from others, guiding users to the appropriate extinguisher type for fires involving flammable liquids and solids, as foam effectively smothers and cools such fires.
A: Blue. Blue represents dry powder extinguishers, not foam, used for different fire types like electrical fires, so it does not apply to foam extinguisher identification.
B: Green. Green is associated with water extinguishers, suitable for ordinary combustibles, making it unrelated to foam extinguisher colour coding.
C: Black. Black signifies carbon dioxide extinguishers, designed for electrical fires, which distinguishes it from the cream-coded foam extinguishers.
Which of the following statements is true of chest tubes?
Rationale:
Chest drainage must be observed for amount and color. Monitoring these factors is essential to assess the patient's condition and detect complications such as bleeding or infection. Accurate observation allows timely intervention and ensures the chest tube functions effectively in removing air, fluid, or pus from the pleural space, promoting proper lung re-expansion and recovery.
A: The drainage system must be kept below the chest, not above, to allow gravity to facilitate effective drainage and prevent backflow of fluid or air into the pleural cavity, ensuring proper function.
C: Tubing should never be kinked as this obstructs drainage, potentially causing pressure buildup, impaired lung expansion, and increased risk of complications like tension pneumothorax or infection.
D: Chest tubes can be placed in both the front and back of the body, depending on the location and type of fluid or air needing drainage, so this statement is overly restrictive and inaccurate.
Hypothyroidism can cause which of the following symptoms?
Rationale:
Hypothyroidism can cause brittle hair or fingernails. Hypothyroidism slows metabolism, reducing the body's ability to maintain healthy hair and nails, leading to brittleness and fragility. This symptom arises due to insufficient thyroid hormone levels, which impair keratin production and cellular regeneration, causing hair thinning, breakage, and fragile nails that easily crack or split.
A: Increased hair growth Hypothyroidism typically reduces hair growth rather than increasing it, as hormone deficiency slows cellular activity, resulting in hair thinning or loss, not excessive growth.
B: Weight loss Hypothyroidism generally causes weight gain due to slowed metabolism, so weight loss is not typical and contradicts the decreased metabolic rate characteristic of this condition.
C: Nausea or diarrhea Hypothyroidism most often causes constipation rather than diarrhea, and nausea is not a primary symptom, making these gastrointestinal effects uncommon in this disorder.
A young woman has been in an automobile crash that resulted in an amputation of her left lower leg. She verbalizes grief and loss. What knowledge by the nurse is used to provide interventions to help the patient cope?
Rationale:
The patient’s grief and loss are a normal, appropriate response to amputation. Understanding this helps the nurse provide empathetic support and validate the patient’s emotions, facilitating healthy coping and adjustment. Recognizing grief as a natural reaction allows for tailored interventions that address emotional needs, promoting psychological healing alongside physical recovery in this traumatic situation.
A: The patient should be grateful to be alive. This dismisses emotional pain and undermines the legitimacy of grief, potentially hindering emotional expression and recovery.
C: This is an abnormal, inappropriate response. Grieving after amputation is expected; labeling it abnormal could stigmatize natural feelings and obstruct supportive care.
D: Tissue healing will help the patient adapt. Physical healing alone does not address psychological adjustment or emotional processing essential for coping with limb loss.
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED by his parents several minutes after he fell through a window. He is bleeding profusely from a 6-cm wound of his medial right thigh. Immediate management of the wound should consist of:
Rationale:
Direct Answer: Immediate management of the wound should consist of direct pressure on the wound.
Correct Option Explanation: Direct pressure on the wound is the first and most effective step to control profuse bleeding. It compresses the bleeding vessels directly, promoting clot formation and reducing blood loss. This method is quick, simple, and can be applied immediately by caregivers or emergency responders while preparing for further treatment.
A: Application of a tourniquet involves compressing a limb to stop blood flow, which is reserved for uncontrollable hemorrhage after direct pressure fails, not initial management of a bleeding thigh wound.
C: Packing the wound with gauze is useful when direct pressure alone does not control bleeding, but initial immediate control is best achieved through direct pressure before packing.
D: Direct pressure on the femoral artery at the groin is less effective initially because it may not adequately compress bleeding vessels in the thigh wound itself and delays direct wound control.
A nursing assistant should give nail care
Rationale:
A nursing assistant should give nail care when she notices a resident's nails are getting long. This timing ensures nails are maintained for hygiene, comfort, and safety, preventing issues like breaks or infections. Regular observation helps provide care tailored to individual needs, supporting overall health and well-being without relying on arbitrary schedules or unrelated activities.
A: Whenever she has time Nail care requires specific timing based on nail condition, not just available moments, to maintain proper hygiene and prevent discomfort or infection.
B: When she is bathing a resident Bathing focuses on skin cleanliness; nail care needs separate attention and cannot be effectively done during bathing.
D: When the resident's nail polish wears off Nail polish condition does not indicate the need for nail trimming or hygiene care, which depends on nail length and health.
A 30 year old male is stabbed in the right chest. On arrival in the ED, he is very short of breath. His HR is 120 bpm, BP is 80/50. His neck veins are flat. On auscultation of the chest, there is diminished air entry on the right side, and there is dullness posteriorly on percussion. These findings are most consistent with:
Rationale:
Hemothorax is the most consistent diagnosis based on the clinical signs and examination findings described.
Hemothorax presents with diminished breath sounds and dullness to percussion on the affected side due to blood accumulation in the pleural space. The hypotension, tachycardia, and flat neck veins indicate hypovolemia without raised venous pressure, matching blood loss into the chest rather than air or cardiac tamponade.
B: Pericardial tamponade typically causes elevated neck veins and muffled heart sounds, not diminished air entry or dullness to percussion on the chest.
C: Tension pneumothorax presents with hyper-resonant percussion and distended neck veins, contrasting the dullness and flat veins observed here.
D: Hypovolemia from liver injury would not cause localized chest findings like diminished breath sounds or dullness on percussion over the right chest.
In a 56-year-old patient who has recurrent hospital admissions for congestive heart failure due to medication and fluid non-compliance, which is the least effective way to reduce the risk of recurrence of fluid overload?
Rationale:
Lecturing patient to be compliant to fluid restriction and medications during clinic visits is the least effective way to reduce the risk of recurrence of fluid overload.
Cognitive overload and passive listening during lectures often fail to change behavior. This method lacks interactive elements necessary for retention and motivation, unlike personalized assessments or teach-back techniques that actively engage patients, improve understanding, and encourage adherence, making lectures alone ineffective for managing complex self-care in congestive heart failure.
A: Home visit to assess patient's coping skills at home provides personalized insights into the patient's environment, enabling tailored interventions that directly address barriers to compliance and improve management of fluid overload.
B: Assess and address patient's knowledge, attitudes, and practices facilitates identification of misconceptions and motivational factors, allowing targeted education and behavioral strategies to enhance adherence and reduce recurrence risk.
D: Educate patient on how to monitor his weight, measure his fluid intake and assess his knowledge using the 'teach-back' method ensures active patient participation, reinforces understanding, and verifies competence, promoting effective self-management and preventing fluid overload.
Normal age-related changes for the musculoskeletal system include
Rationale:
Muscles weaken and lose tone as a normal age-related change in the musculoskeletal system. This occurs due to decreased muscle fiber size and number, resulting in reduced strength and endurance. The decline in muscle tone affects mobility and balance, which are common in aging individuals. Bone density also diminishes, contrasting with increased muscle mass or calcium gain, which do not occur naturally with age.
B: Bones gain calcium contradicts typical aging processes, where bone density actually decreases, leading to conditions like osteoporosis rather than an increase in calcium content within the bones.
C: Muscle mass increases is inaccurate because aging generally causes sarcopenia, a reduction in muscle size and strength, rather than any natural gain in muscle tissue.
D: Causing weight gain is unrelated to musculoskeletal changes; weight fluctuations are influenced by metabolism and lifestyle factors, not directly by the structural changes in muscles or bones during aging.
Who should an employee speak to if they notice that a colleague is about to handle chemicals without wearing correct PPE?
Rationale:
An employee should speak to the colleague directly if they notice improper PPE use.
Addressing the colleague immediately ensures quick correction of unsafe behavior, preventing accidents. This direct communication promotes personal responsibility and awareness, fostering a safer work environment. It allows the colleague to acknowledge the risk firsthand and adjust actions without delay, reducing potential harm before escalating the issue to others.
A: Senior management involves higher authorities, which may delay immediate action and is less effective for urgent safety corrections.
B: Line manager may not be present at the moment, causing unnecessary delay instead of prompt intervention by the employee.
D: Health and safety representative handles broader policy issues, not immediate, direct safety concerns requiring instant response.
How should residents in isolation be treated?
Rationale:
Residents in isolation should be listened to and encouraged to share their feelings and concerns. This approach supports their emotional well-being, reduces feelings of loneliness, and helps address anxiety or stress related to isolation. Engaging with residents promotes trust and mental health, which is essential for recovery and maintaining a positive environment during a challenging and potentially frightening experience.
A: They should be left alone neglects emotional support, which can worsen loneliness and mental distress during isolation.
B: Their behavior should be monitored closely to make sure they do not infect anyone else focuses narrowly on infection control, ignoring emotional and psychological needs.
C: They should not be allowed to use the phone or use utensils unnecessarily restricts personal freedoms and communication, increasing isolation and stress.
The medical term for paralysis on one side of the body is
Rationale:
Hemiplegia refers to paralysis affecting one side of the body. This term combines "hemi-" meaning half and "-plegia" meaning paralysis, accurately describing the condition where one side is immobilized due to neurological impairment, often from stroke or brain injury.
A: Hemoptysis means coughing up blood, related to respiratory issues, not paralysis or any motor function impairment involving body sides.
C: Hemophilia denotes a genetic bleeding disorder characterized by poor blood clotting, unrelated to paralysis or neurological motor deficits.
D: Hematuria involves the presence of blood in urine, a urinary tract symptom, and does not describe paralysis or side-specific motor loss.
Which of the following statements concerning intraosseous infusion is TRUE?
Rationale:
Aspiration of bone marrow confirms appropriate positioning of the needle. This method verifies correct intraosseous needle placement by obtaining marrow contents, ensuring the infusion accesses the medullary cavity for effective fluid and medication delivery. It is a reliable clinical sign used during the procedure to confirm that the needle is neither misplaced nor extravasated outside the bone.
A: Only crystalloid solutions may be safely infused through the needle Limitations on fluid type are inaccurate; both crystalloids and blood products can be administered intraosseously.
C: Intraosseous infusion is the preferred route for volume resuscitation in small children It is an emergency alternative, not the preferred first-line approach for volume resuscitation in small children.
D: Intraosseous infusion may be utilized indefinitely Prolonged use is contraindicated due to risks like infection and compartment syndrome; it is intended for short-term emergency access only.